I'm not sure what the question is particularly asking for, therefore I wouldn't consider my solution here reliable...
ALT:
Take any non-trivial ARMA(p,q) model to explain the concept of 'mean-' and 'variance' equation
$$ r_{t} \equiv \mu_{t-1} + \epsilon_{t} $$
Where $\mu _{t-1}$ is the mean part of the return decomposition, and $\epsilon _{t}$ is the variance part of the return decomposition.
The task of the mean equation is to capture auto correlation in the realized returns. (The vast majority of returns weakly auto correlated). An ARMA(p,q) parametrization can remove the correlation.
Hence we get the following mean equation: (k-factor risk premiums are optional)